First, there is a typo in your equation, one should reed:
$$\frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial}{\partial r}\left( K r \frac{\partial T}{\partial r} \right) + \frac{\partial}{\partial z} \left( K \frac{\partial T}{\partial z} \right) = 0$$
If $K$ is assumed to be constant, you can take $K=1$.
To obtain a weak formulation, you need to choose an inner product. In cylindrical coordinates with axissymmetry, the natural one is:
$$(u,v)=\int_{\mathbb{R}^+\times\mathbb{R}}uv r dr dz$$
Now if you take the inner product between the equation and a test function $q$, after integrating by parts, you get:
$$(\partial_r T,\partial_r q) + (\partial_z T,\partial_z q)=0$$
i.e. in FEniCS
(Dx(T,0)*Dx(q,0) + Dx(T,1)*Dx(q,1))*x[0]*dx()
You can also get the answer directly, since in spherical coordinates the gradient is given by
$$grad(u) = \partial_r u e_r + \partial_z u e_z$$
Finally, be aware of the boundary condition at $r=0$, you probably want a solution smooth that is smooth at the origin!